Romans - December 23, 2007

Section -- Two; Condemnation-- Romans 1:18-3:20, continued...

D. Evidence Applied [Discussion Question Answered] — Why is God not showing partiality when He judges those without the Law (Law of Moses) the same as those with the Law of Moses?
1. God is going to judge all men no matter what their station in life and no matter what amount of God’s law they knew.
2. Each man is going to have his fair hearing based on his response to the amount of “light” (God’s information) he had at his disposal.
a. The Jew first (under the Law of Moses’, thus, have a finely tuned ethical system) has a high responsibility.
b. A Gentile is still held accountable, however, via whatever code he had or could have had (from observation of creation, conscience, and otherwise)+.
(1) A Gentile not making any effort to have or follow a code, if such a person exist, will be judged on what he had the opportunity to have.

E. Conclusion — No man (no matter how good or how bad, under the Law of Moses or not under the Law of Moses) can hope to escape judgment for his sins. The way out of this dilemma (how mankind is saved) will be revealed by Paul in the next section, thus, will be discussed then.+
1. It is noteworthy in verse 12 Paul does not say, “For as many without law will be justified without law and as many as with law will be justified with law.”
a. Paul’s point in this section is all are under condemnation — thus, declare a man to be under any form of law and you put him under condemnation.
2. The pagan, one by birth or choice, has responsibility and will be judged; but it is God’s end of the whittling stick, not ours, to make sure it is a fair judgment.

VIII. {Rom 2:17-24} Reason God’s condemnation is impartial toward Jews
A. Introduction
1. Review — In previous paragraph Holy Spirit shows all will be judged by their response to the amount of God’s will (knowledge of) they had available to them.
2. Preview — Paul now drives home to those resting in their “religious association” [being a “Christian; in a church “phone book”] reason for their “condemnation”.

B. Question For Discussion? — What was the problem with the Jew’s concept of their salvation?

C. Questions For Encouraging Discussion...+
OBSERVATION: Name Jew [2Ki 16:6] was properly applied to a member of the kingdom of Judah [Southern Kingdom] soon after the separation of the ten tribes. After the captivity “Jew” was applied to remnants scattered among all nations of both Northern and Southern Kingdom.
1. From the Jew’s point of view what did it mean to be called a Jew? [2:17-20]
a. (v.17) Relied upon the law and were proud of their relationship to God.
b. (v.18) He was proud of his knowledge....
(1) He thought he alone knew God’s will.
(2) He alone had the ability to ascertain excellent things.
(3) He alone was instructed by the Law.
c. (v.19-20) Were the source of knowledge to others for they alone knew the mind of God.
(1) Wrong attitude: We are always right and others are always wrong for we alone are honest students of God’s revealed mind.

2. What did Paul mean when he said they had a “form of knowledge” in verse 2: 20 (KJV)? Consider other versions and or the Greek.
a. The Greek word express by the English word “form” [3446. morphosis {mor’-fo-sis}] can mean just the semblance of a thing or it can mean the real thing. In verse 17-20 Paul is saying what the Jews thought of themselves, not what they were. Based on context Paul is not saying they thought they had a hypocritical profession of religion without its reality. Paul is ridiculing them or condemning them for they alone had access to God’s will, they were the “embodiment of knowledge and truth” — but they were only applying the Law to the outward man not the inward man.

3. (v.20) Was Paul criticizing the Jew for acting as if they were instructors to others?